Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Humanities/2022 May 25

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May 25

Eucharistic forum shopping

Let's say you are an RCC member and you live in California and work in Washington DC. You go to the California RCC branch for communion but the priest says "die, heretic!" (or whatever the formal liturgical equivalent is) and doesn't give it to you.[1] But the priest at the Washington DC branch is ok with it, sort of like a circuit split in the secular legal system. Can you just get it in Washgington, decide for yourself that it "counts", and leave any further judgment up to God? Or will the Church authorities somehow hassle you over what you are doing? The person in this predicament (not me) is too well known to do this type of thing quietly or anonymously. Thanks. 2601:648:8202:350:0:0:0:738F (talk)

See [2] [3]. Nil Einne (talk) 05:35, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

The Pope has already said they shouldn't deny communion to politicians based on their opinions, so we'll just see who the real "heretic" turns out to be. --←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 06:08, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

Thanks both. Nil Einne's first link (religionnews) clarified the matter pretty well, the dioceses have only local jurisdiction and you can get communion anywhere. The question of whether the Washington communion "counts" in California didn't come up, but I'd be surprised if there is doctrine about that. 2601:648:8202:350:0:0:0:738F (talk) 06:28, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

There is a procedure Excommunication (Catholic Church) which has not been set in motion here. 2A02:C7C:365E:E700:18D:B732:4EE4:44CB (talk) 10:20, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

• There's two separate issues here; priests are (AFAIK) generally proscribed from giving communion to people they know to be unqualified to receive it, and individuals are similarly proscribed from receiving communion if they themselves are not qualified to so receive it. Many missalettes or orders of worship will contain explicit instructions for worshippers on who is or is not qualified to receive communion (for example, non-Catholic christians are generally proscribed from receiving communion even if they are believers; this may be different for other Christian denominations). The deal is, if the priest doesn't know if the receiver is supposed to receive the communion they will generally just give it; it is generally between the receiver and God to know if the receiver is getting it "against the rules" as it were. If it is someone the priest 'actually knows' to be unqualified, they may refuse to grant communion, but your scenario presumes the person in question is unknown to the priest. In that case, the priest will give communion and is not under any interdict not to; nothing bad happens to the priest. Whether anything bad happens to the person receiving said communion depends on your own personal theology and belief in the afterlife, which is outside of the scope of this venue. --Jayron32 13:45, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

  The scenario actually presumes the person to be well known, like certain 79-year old officials that regularly appear on TV.  --Lambiam 15:54, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

  • Yeah by "consequences for the receiver" of receiving communion while not qualified, I meant both 1) earthly consequences such as your archbishop sending Cardinal Fang & associates to your house (unexpectedly of course) to put you in the comfy chair and poke you with a soft pillow; and 2) heavenly consequences as held in RCC doctrine, whether or not one believes the doctrine. I had particularly wondered whether the person could be considered saved in Washington but damned in California. In this case the person is famous enough to necessarily be known to both priests, although maybe that could be defeated by a disguise. 2601:648:8202:350:0:0:0:738F (talk) 15:20, 25 May 2022 (UTC)
    • The archbishop isn't sending anyone to your house to do anything. --Jayron32 17:13, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

This was a reference to The Spanish Inquisition (Monty Python). --Cookatoo.ergo.ZooM (talk) 18:11, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

Yes, I'm quite aware. I've seen the sketch in question. Many times. --Jayron32 17:35, 26 May 2022 (UTC)

Reader comment in the Daily Mail for 19 January:

* NO ONE expects the Woke Inquisition! — Preceding unsigned comment added by 92.19.175.5 (talk) 11:01, 27 May 2022 (UTC)

Name of Japanese man in Manchuria

I'm looking for the article on a Japanese man (either a Diplomat or Military officer) who was in Japan during the interwar period and WW2. He held positive views on the Chinese people until an incident where he was beaten up on the street, after that he adopted anti-chinese views. His page was featured in the "Did you know ..." section. I have already tried the search function and detailed search functions in the "Did you know ..." archives and for all articles and I just can't find the specific article I am looking for. I apologize if this is not the right place for such a question but I don't know where else to look. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 81.223.36.24 (talk) 12:14, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

Sasaki Tōichi 59.102.44.51 (talk) 14:44, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

Thank you ~~81.223.36.24 2001:4BB8:2C1:7174:ED1D:A7E8:1DA0:7E61 (talk) 21:50, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

US mortgage question

1. What are the exact steps for paying the down payment for a mortgage?

For cash purchase of a home, my understanding of the process is:

Step 1. the escrow agent will provide me with the account number of the escrow account

Step 2. I will go to my bank, provide them this account number, and initiate a wire transfer for the purchase amount

Step 3. later in the day the escrow agent will inform me that the payment has been received

(This is just my understanding. I have never done this before. Any correction will be greatly appreciated.)

What about the process when I'm taking out a mortgage with a bank? Is it the same as the above, but replace "escrow agent" with "bank employee"?

2. The Federal Housing Administration has fixed mortgage limits assigned for each US county. I'm not sure what exactly this means. Let's say there's a $900,000 house in an county with a FHA mortgage limit of $500,000. The borrower is putting down a down payment of $500,000 and plans to get a mortgage with a loan amount of $400,000. Does this situation qualify for a FHA mortgage?

The loan amount ($400,000) is below the FHA mortgage limit of $500,000, but the house value ($900,000) isn't.

Thanks in advance.Mũeller (talk) 20:09, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

Federal Housing Administration uses two different terms: "mortgage limit"[4] and "loan limit"[5]. I'm not sure whether these two terms refer to the same thing or not. In the hypothetical situation above, my understanding is that $400,000 is being loaned, and thus it needs to be below the "loan limit". Mũeller (talk) 20:15, 25 May 2022 (UTC)

Is there any reason you are asking us rather than the mortgage company handling the details of your loan, or the lawyers that are managing the transaction? It seems like people who deal with such transactions as their entire career would be better positioned to answer these questions, and presumably you have access to them if you are in the process of obtaining the loan in question? Random people on the internet are usually less likely to know the details of a job than are the people actually doing that job. --Jayron32 17:34, 26 May 2022 (UTC)

To clarify, there is no limit to the size of a mortgage, other that the insurance the (U.S. Federal) government may offer, and any regulations governing the lender. If you want to buy my house, I am perfectly within my legal rights to offer you a multi-million dollar loan, even if it is only a $500,000 house. DOR (HK) (talk) 00:07, 27 May 2022 (UTC)

It's not usually a seller that offers the loan; usually a mortgage broker offers the loan, underwritten by a bank, though banks themselves also offer loans directly. The real estate agent will sometimes have preferred banks and/or mortgage brokers they work with, though the buyer can also secure their own financing. The seller has no real say in the matter, it's the buyer that works out how they will finance the purchase. Any financial institution that would underwrite such a loan is not going to grant a multi-million dollar loan on $500,000 collateral. Sometimes, the seller may have an assumable mortgage, but the buyer is not necessarily bound to accept such an assumption; if they can get better terms they will and can just pay off the existing mortgage as part of the purchase with their own new mortgage. --Jayron32 12:25, 27 May 2022 (UTC)