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name gets anglicized to Moore? and use of umlaut o?edit
Latest comment: 5 years ago1 comment1 person in discussion
It says in the Moore article that that (English/Garlic) surname has no connection with similarly pronounced Mohr, which I understand is from Mo:hr (i.e. use of o umlaut and not plain o), also rendered as Moehr in English. But it could have ended up being anglicized to Moore, right! Carlm0404 (talk) 00:55, 31 October 2018 (UTC)Reply
