Talk:James of Aragon (monk)

Latest comment: 10 years ago by Surtsicna in topic Untitled

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Is there some reason the word "infante" is used instead of "infant"? The dictionary I used tells me that "infante" is "A title given to every one of sons of the kings of Spain and Portugal, except the eldest or heir apparent. [1913 Webster]" If he's heir apparent, shouldn't we just write "infant"? 24.168.45.239 (talk) 15:26, 29 May 2014 (UTC)Reply

The heir apparent is still included as an "infante". It's just that he usually carries another title that takes precedence over this one (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infante). I would assume that because James was so contrary beginning at a young age, that his father never bestowed upon him a ducal or other title, hence "infante" would be an appropriate usage. -J. Conti108.20.74.240 (talk) 02:46, 30 May 2014 (UTC)Reply

The title Duke of Girona, reserved for the heir apparent to the Crown of Aragon, was created in 1351. Prior to that, the eldest son bore the same title as his brothers. Surtsicna (talk) 07:24, 30 May 2014 (UTC)Reply