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Can an expert please check the forms in the table. On page 372 of Whitney's grammar (WHITNEY, W. [2003] Sanskrit Grammar. Dover.; available in Google Books), has the forms "pípasami" and "píbami" for the "drink" verb, whereas those in the table end in "-ti"
- -mi is 1st singular ("I want to drink"), -ti is 3rd singular ("he/she wants to drink"). --ἀνυπόδητος (talk) 19:20, 28 December 2009 (UTC)
Add Japanese. It has this form and is a language that people actually speak. I don't know enough details to add it myself. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 208.120.137.109 (talk) 12:44, 15 March 2009 (UTC)
English future edit
Could the IE desiderative/future be compared to English‘s “will” which is used for the future but comes from a verb meaning “want” Anatol Rath (talk) 18:04, 31 May 2019 (UTC)
Celtic edit
The Celtic languages have no morphological future tense, except in some irregular verbs like "to be" which are not at all related to any PIE desiderative mood. - Dyolf87 (talk) 20:47, 4 June 2021 (UTC)
Mari edit
Why do three-quarters of the Mari examples have a superscript number? —Tamfang (talk) 02:49, 11 April 2023 (UTC)