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Is this information correct? "The Arabic word bararat [بهارات] is an archaic plural to bahar [بهار] “spice” and thus means “the spices” so the bararat blend is just “the (canonical) spice mixture”."
The plural is correct but not archaic. I wonder about the Indian etymology though - I'm tempted to remove that, as it's unsourced and seems a little far fetched to me. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Slougi (talk • contribs) 17:59, 30 July 2009 (UTC)Reply
It has nothing to do with Bharat, the name of India. The suffix -āt in Arabic is the regular feminine plural ending. The base word bahār 'spice', without the plural suffix, is obviously not derived from "Bharat." If you're going to make up a whimsical etymology based on a chance resemblance, use the base word: in that case you could say the Arabic word for spice came from the Indian state of Bihar (which would be equally inane). —Preceding unsigned comment added by Johanna-Hypatia (talk • contribs) 09:46, 25 July 2010 (UTC)Reply
@Mvolz readded this debunked etymology a month ago with an absolutely terrible source.
Compare wiktionary: "Borrowed from Arabic بَهَارَات (bahārāt), plural of بَهَار (bahār, “spring”). Derived from Persian بهار (bahâr) in the sense of blossoms and foliage, as a great many spices are cultivated from the leaves of various plants and herbs." 2600:8807:4D88:8C00:69D0:E7E1:1939:7FF1 (talk) 23:14, 5 September 2023 (UTC)Reply
Is this correct? "Baharat is mainly used for mutton dishes; most commonly, the mixture is shortly fried in oil or clarified butter to intensify the fragrance." Badagnani (talk) 04:05, 5 January 2008 (UTC)Reply
Is this part of Israeli cuisine, or is it only used by Israeli Arabs? Or is it similar to how chili powder is used in the United States, having come originally from Mexico? Badagnani (talk) 01:33, 21 February 2008 (UTC)Reply
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