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Latest comment: 9 months ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Isn't it generally considered that orthographic gn was already pronounced ŋn in classical Latin, which even agrees with its development in Romanian (the only language I know of where it didn't become a palatal nasal)? Why the need for a supposed ɣn phase in proto-Romance? Ngfsmg (talk) 03:19, 10 December 2022 (UTC)Reply
Perhaps the cited sources and footnote could be of some help. Nicodene (talk) 01:33, 21 September 2023 (UTC)Reply
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